Can anyone tell me the specific difference between the two, and should the ‘‘interest paid’’ figure simply be deducted from Cash flow from operations for calculating free cash flow ?
I often see, for example, a 200 million ‘‘Finance cost’’ deducted from the Income statement which is then added back to Cash Flow from Operations. So they cancel each other out, but then further down a 100 million deduction for ‘‘Interest Paid’’ under cash flow financing activities. So is ‘‘Interest paid’’ the only figure that should be deducted to calculate free cash flow with regards to simply investing ?
I’m talking about UK stocks here so i guess its IFRS. So with UK companies it seems ‘‘Financing costs’’ are generally deducted in the Income statement and then added back on in CFO (like depreciation). Whilst the ‘‘Interest Paid’’ figure is either deducted under CFO or CF from Financing.
But from purely from an investing perspective what about when a company has so much debt that it will be paying off its interest for the next 5 to 10 years. Doesnt this interest cost then become part of everyday operations and so should be deducted to arrive at FCF ? Or with these high debt stocks should you simply compare any DCF to the Enterprise Value , rather than the market cap ?
And high debt, high interest paying companies/stocks should generally be valued using Free Cash Flow to Firm?
I am struggling alittle to understand your question, but I will try
Interest cost (regardless high or low interest) must be added back to free cash flow
Definition of free cash flow =$ that is available to both stock & debt holders
In this case interest cost is an asset to debt holders , and therefore must be added back (if it wasn’t added to CFO)
Unless you are planning a takeover, in this case EV will be a better matrix because the the acquirer would ultimately keep the cash and assumes only the debt portion
On your last question, should they be value using free cash flow to firm: it really depends on what you want to value the company for. Keep in mind you could use free cash flow to equity as an equity holder
Stop trying to integrate the information. On the test, Equity will be equity, and FRA will be FRA, and there will be no mixing the two together. (At least at Level 1)
You will get a very healthy dose of this at Level 2.
Is FCFE a better model than FCFF when valuing company as a minority shareholder: Yes Do I always use FCFE model: No It depends on the characteristics of the company, what stage its in etc FCFE will be more appropriate if the company does not pays dividend, if it does, you might want to consider discounted dividend model Bear in mind in CFA curriculum, you will come across many different type of valuation model, and especially so when you move up next level Even after completing all 3 levels, you need to be aware too that there is not 1 template valuation model can be used for every companies If there is, then every single one of us will have the exact same price target as all others out there