FCInv = Capital expenditures - Proceeds from sales of long-term assets
OR
FCInv = Ending Net PPE - Beginning Net PPE + Depreciation - Gain on Sale
The second formula is equating ‘Gain on Sale’ with ‘Proceeds from sales of long-term assets’.
However, won’t the two differ in a lot of cases? If I sell an asset with a book value of $100, for a price of $120, my proceeds should be $120, but my gain on sales should be $20.
Schweser makes this statement, ‘If sales proceeds are not given directly, find gain on asset sales from the income statement.’
I find this a bit illogical. Gains on asset sales COULD equal proceeds, but that does not have to be the case
Im very slow… and this topic is my exact question… can you spell this out for me further as I am having difficulty understanding. Is Capital Expenditures = Ending Net PPE - Beg. Net PPE + Depreciation? If so, why is the top forumula subtracting Proceeds while the bottom forumala is subtracting gain?