I am not understanding the interest rate tree given for Q10 for CFA reading 36. It starts with year 1 i=1%, year 2 rh=4% rl=2%, year 3 rhh=6% rhl=5% rll=3%
So the question asks to value a 3 year 6% annual coupon bond using the tree. My understanding of valuing is the same as the blue box example 3 on page 82-83. So year 3 is maturity hence we will receive principal and interest, which we should discount by the year 2 rate to give the PV for year 2. T the solution solves for year 2 present values by discounting by the t=3 rates from the binomial tree. So am totally confused by the binomial tree is stated.
It’s probably something really simple that I am missing, but I just am unable to understand the question and make the correlation to the blue box example.
First, the way they presented the rates is stupid: the rate they call “Year 1” is, in fact, the 1-year forward rate starting today and ending at year 1, which isn’t remotely the way an interest rate tree is normally presented. The headings should be Year 0, Year 1, and Year 2.
Second, I owe AnalystDude123 an apology: your description of the discount rates is consistent with the stupid table.
bimo: you’re not missing anything. They labeled the tree in a stupid manner, and it threw you, as well it should. I’ll write CFA Institute and ask them about that.
Haha I got a little worried since I thought I completely messed up the answer once you replied. But I did check the book before posting and the rates were presented kind of counter intuitively in regards to other examples and schweser.
Edit: And I’m also aware that you use the forward rates to discount, but I tried tailoring my response in context of how they were presented in the question. Sorry if I caused any confusion!
Many thanks for your help S2000, I was banging my head on that question for a couple of hours because I thought I wasn’t grasping a key concept about the binomial tree which would bite me in the behind the exam. I have now found relief lol.