I’m looking at page 75 with regards to derivative overlays. Seems like the interest rate futures from last year and the equation
number of contracts = (durationtarget - durationinitial)/PCTD*DurationCTD * Conversion factor.
Aside from that, they use the equation
Number of contracts = (Liability BPV - Asset BPV) / Futures BPV
where Futures BPV = BPV of cheapest to deliver / Conversion factor cheapest to deliver
On page 74, it states in the second last paragraph. THe key point is that although eligible T-notes are roughly equivalent on will be identified as the cheapest to deliver. Importantly, the duration of the 10-year futures contract is assumed to be the duration fo the CTD t-note.
Im confused. Do we always use the 10 year future as the CTD? On the next page they go over a 6.5 year t-note and a 10 year t-note and conclude that the number of contracts is 1,432 if the 6.5 year T-note is used as the CTD and number of contracts is 1,032 if the 10 year is used as CTD.
It has a concluding statement in the text that says – Clearly, the asset manager must know the CTD T-note to use in the derivatives overlay stragegy. The difference between 1,432 and 1,032 of 400 is significant.
From the initial text statement I would use the 10-year note but then this example says the manager must know the CTD T-note to use. How does he chose and which one do we use for the calculation?