Fixed Income Investment-Binomial Tree

There was a question in Wiley 2017 morning session, I do not get how did we calculate the par value of the bond by which we constructed the binomial tree.

Brandon Walsh, a new intern hired by Haas, then provides the team with the binomial interest rate tree presented in Exhibit 1. He wants to use the tree to value a floating-rate bond issued by Samdong Industrials Inc. Information regarding the bond issued is provided in Exhibit 2:

Exhibit 1: Binomial Interest Rate Tree Assuming an Interest Rate Volatility of 8% t = 0 --> 0.5430%

t = 1 -->u=2.0908%, d=1.7817%

t = 2 -->u=2.6865%, m=2.2893%, d=1.9508%

Exhibit 2: Three-Year Floating-Rate Note Issued by Samdong Industrials Inc. Coupon=Annual coupon based on 12-month Libor + 320 bps Cap=5.40% Term=Three years

Answer: Based on the data provided in Exhibits 1 and 2, the value of the bond issued by Samdong is closest to: A. $101.528. B. $99.895. C. $99.856. Answer: C

t = 0 -->99.856

t = 1 -->u=99.7416, d=99.9597

t = 2 -->u=99.5405, m=99.9153, d=100

I don’t follow how for t=2, d=100. The coupon payment is 12 month LIBOR + 3.2%, so 1.9508% + 3.2% = $5.15. $105.15 is discounted back at 1.9508% to give $103.14.

The way wiley is doing this is by adding the 3.2% (as denoted by 320bps over libor) to the interest rate tree, such as you would with OAS, and then capping the coupon at 5.4%. The binomial then transforms to:

t = 0 –> 3.7532%

t = 1 –>u=5.2909%, d=4.9817%

t = 2 –>u=5.8893%, m=5.4893%, d=5.1508%

And the result is exactly as the answer:

t = 0 –>99.856

t = 1 –>u=99.7416, d=99.9597

t = 2 –>u=99.5405, m=99.9153, d=100

Remember to cap the coupon + value to 105.4.

There’s no calculation for the par value of a bond, it is 100. The MV at different periods could be below par (less than 100) or above par (more than 100) depending on the ytm and coupon.

Lifesaver! This question puzzled me whole day.