In the text, it shows that:
Using the arbitrage-free approach, any fixed-income security should be thought of as a package or portfolio of zero-coupon bonds
Could someone clarify this conceptually? Eg. How’s a premium bond a portfolio of zero-coupon (discount) bonds?
Suppose that you have a 4-year, annual-pay, 6% coupon, $1,000 par bond with a YTM of 5%. It’s equivalent to a portfolio comprising:
- A 1-year, $60 par zero coupon bond
- A 2-year, $60 par zero coupon bond
- A 3-year, $60 par zero coupon bond
- A 4-year, $1,060 par zero coupon bond
If, instead, your original bond has a YTM of 7%, it’s equivalent to . . . wait a minute! . . . the same portfolio of zeros!