If I’ve got this straight in the CFA text book currency pairs are quoted Price/Base and if the quote increases, it means the base currency has appreciated.
From my reading materials:
For example, suppose that the USD/GBP exchange rate is currently 1.5125. From this exchange rate quote we can infer that:
The GBP is the base currency and USD is the price currency.
1 GBP will buy 1.5125 USD or 1 GBP costs 1.5125 USD.
It will take 1.5125 USD to purchase 1 GBP.
A decrease in the exchange rate (e.g., to 1.5120) means that 1 GBP will be able to purchase fewer USD.
Alternatively, fewer USD will now be required to purchase 1 GBP (i.e., the cost of a GBP has fallen).
This decrease in the exchange rate means that the GBP has depreciated (lost value) against the USD, or equivalently the USD has appreciated (gained value) against the GBP.
Forex sites don’t use this convention though. The EURO:USD has moved from 1.10 to 1.06 - so the dollar has strengthened relative to the Euro, which is exactly opposite of the CFA convention, unless I’m bloody confused.
How do I keep this straight in my head?
I NEVER EVER GET CURRENCY QUESTIONS RIGHT BECAUSE I DON’T KNOW WHICH CURRENCY IS APPRECIATING AND WHAT I’M BUYING AND SELLING. HELP!!!
CFA Institute has employees whose sole job is to monitor Analyst Forum and broadcast threads such as this (with highlights) to all employees: every room has a big screen TV just for that purpose.
i just looked at the solution to example 3, question 2. after thinking about it for 10 minutes I decided the authors have absolutely no idea what they are talking about.
a near/far swap with mid rate quoted on the near leg? dream on…