TTKDD
May 29, 2014, 12:59pm
#1
CFA Mock 2011 Q13
I have to receive £ 5million
Expiration is in 3 months
Long because I am receiving £ at future point in time, hence I have to short the futures
In summary I am long on the underlying and short on the futures contract
In futures contract I deliver £ and receive CAD
The other details are given below
S0=CAD1.80/£
S1=CAD1.70/£
For the spot market
I interpret that the above rates that CAD has appreciated ad £ has depreciated.
So what I have to sell in spot £ has depreciated so I loose or in other words what I have to buy CAD has appreciated, hence I loose.
In the forward market
I am short to deliver £
So what I have to deliver in forward £ has depreciated so I gain or in other words what I have to buy CAD has appreciated, hence I gain.
F0=CAD1.75/£
F1=CAD1.65/£
Can anyone please help me confirm my thinking is correct.
Thank you
cpk123
May 29, 2014, 1:16pm
#2
no need of trying to do so much.
Gain/Loss on Long contract = + Notional * (Forward rate at expiry - Forward Rate at Start)
Gain / Loss on Short Contract = - Notional * (Forward rate at expiry - Forward Rate at Start)
TTKDD
May 29, 2014, 1:26pm
#3
Thank you that is helpful,
But Is my understanding of the flow and identification of long and short correct?
Hey cpk - can you please explain this a little? I get why gain/loss could be (forward rate at start - spot rate at expiry)*notional, but a little unclear on what you posted. Could it be (forwrad rate at expiry - forward rate at start)*number of contracts? Thanks
cpk123
May 29, 2014, 2:08pm
#5
here notional - is the 5 Million pounds the original amount that was hedged.
£ 5million, S0=CAD1.80/£,S1=CAD1.70/£
so for this piece - you are long the contract -> gain/loss = 5 M £ * (1.7 - 1.8) CAD/£ = -0.5 Mill CAD
£ 5million,F0=CAD1.75/£,F1=CAD1.65/£
so for this part: -5 M £ * (1.65 - 1.75) CAD/£ = +0.5 Mill CAD
TTKDD
May 29, 2014, 2:11pm
#6
Thank you,
So the bottom line for me is that I am short on the contract in this example.