Gentlemen,
anyone of you so kind to remind me how to justify a trailing E/P if given? Should I multiply it by (1+g)?
Should I then leave behind from CFA L2 the (1-b) / (r-g) intended as Leading P/E?
thanks,
Regards
Gentlemen,
anyone of you so kind to remind me how to justify a trailing E/P if given? Should I multiply it by (1+g)?
Should I then leave behind from CFA L2 the (1-b) / (r-g) intended as Leading P/E?
thanks,
Regards
Yea.
For the trailing P/E, it’s (1-b) (1+g) / (r-g)
Thanks Mr Smart
if I well understand once given with the trailing I multiply by (1+g) end of the game ?
thanks indeed
Just remember that you’re dividing the GGM of the DDM by Earnings.
If it’s E1, then you already have D1 in the equation, so it’s (1-b)
If it’s E0, you need to get D0, so leave out the (1+g)
thanks!