Can someone please explain why “a lender that uses an FRA is taking considerable risk that the loan will not even be made”. I thought that once FRA is signed, there is no option not to provide the loan, therefore i couldn’t understand why the loan wouldn’t be made.
FRA is used to hedge, usually an upcoming loan hence FRA. If lender expects a loan he might purchase a FRA, but…runs “considerable risk that the loan will not even be made”