Trying to answer my own question, is it because at expiry the difference in value between the long and short position on a FRA is settled via a cash payment?
An FRA is an AGREEMENT. Think of this as being in the same category as a call or put - some sort of “agreement” to do something in the future. The FRA expires at the point when the loan is initiated. So in a 1 x 3 FRA, in 30 days (the “1”) the loan is initiated for 60 days (the “3” minus the “1”). It’s during that 30 days, (the “1”) that interest rates can move up or down so by the time the FRA matures and the loan is to be initiated, the FRA can see a profit or loss. Does that make sense?
Bro, The FRA expires on 1 mth. So upon expiry of the FRA, u would take delivery of the FRA ( a forward contract), which means that your loan period with the agreed interest term as per the FRA starts… i.e. loan initiation…