Hello,
Can anyone explain the intuition behind why geometric mean is less than arithmetic mean, and why the different between geometric and arithmetic mean increases with variability in returns?
Thanks!
Hello,
Can anyone explain the intuition behind why geometric mean is less than arithmetic mean, and why the different between geometric and arithmetic mean increases with variability in returns?
Thanks!
If I were you, I’d put a bunch of (positive) random numbers into an Excel spreadsheet, and compute the arithmetic and geometric means for 2, 3, 4, 5, . . . such numbers. You should be able to see it very quickly.
Here’s a quick proof of it for two numbers, a, b ≥ 0:
(a − b)² ≥ 0
a_² − 2_ab + _b_² ≥ 0
_a_² + b_² ≥ 2_ab
Let a = √_c_, and b = √_d_. Then, _a_² = c, _b_² = d, and,
c + d ≥ 2√(cd)
(c + d) / 2 ≥ √(cd)
Arithmetic average of c & d ≥ Geometric average of c & d
“Let c = √a, and d = √b. Then, a² = c, b² = d,”
Did you mix up the notation? Shouldn’t c2 = a and d2 = b?
Yes.
Fixed.
Thanks.
I am still confused.
Is there a real life example (with stock returns perhaps) that could explain this reasoning?
Let c = 4, d = 5.
Then the arithmetic mean is (4 + 5) / 2 = 4.5; the geometric mean is √(4×5) = √20 = 4.47.
4.47 < 4.5.