I can plug the numbers into the formula pretty easily, but I really want to be able to conceptually understand this and I think I’m missing the point.
Lets take FCFF to mean all available (free) funds to bondholders and shareholders…
Now lets assume a pretty simple example
EBITDA —> $150
Depreication —> $50
EBIT —> $100
Interest Expense —> $10
EBT —> $90
Tax Rate —> 30% (27)
Net Income = 63
Let’s further assume we have no FCinv or WCinv… therefore
FCFF = 63 (NI) + 50 (Dep) + 10*(1-.3) (Interest Net of Tax) = $120.
So, I guess the part that confuses me is why are we adding back just the $7? It’s as if the more interest we have, the higher tax savings we obtain (which I assumed was a plus for FCFF)…
It almost seems as though it should be Interest Expense(1+T). Why does our tax shield from having interest expense on our income statement reduce our FCFF?
Can someone really just dumb it down for me – simply stating that it’s net of tax doesn’t really do it for me. Thanks