HI All,
Noticed something confusing in the readings, wanted to see if you can shed some insight. With regards to capital budgeting we all know that the tax affects of depreciation needed to be added back to operating income. The thing is, the CFA questions use different terms of cash flow, and in some instances this really affects the answer.
For example, based on my understanding, if the text says an equipment will increase revenues and cash operating expenses, the term cash operating expenses means to exclude depreciation. So you still need to do (s-c-d) x (1-t) + d. However if it says operating income after tax of 40, this is after taking depreciation expense, in which case you just need to add back D to get after tax operating cash flow. However it gets confusing bec ive also seen the term “operating costs” which is shown to exclude depreciation. So you still need to subtract depreciation.
How will we know whether the exam definition of “costs/operating expenses” includes depreciation when it doesn’t explicitly say cash expenses?