Hey guys. Going through the diluted EPS section, and reviewed the Treasury stock method. Pretty simple stuff, but I was wondering how “accurate” this method is in reality.
Using the Schweser example:
“Baxter Company has 5,000 shares outstanding all year. Baxter had 2,000 outstanding warrants all year, convertible into one share each at $20 per share. The year-end price of Baxter stock was $40, and the average stock price was $30. What effect will these warrants have on the weighted average number of shares?”
Using the Treasury stock method, the “extra shares” added to the EPS denominator is 2000 - (20 x 2000) / 30 = 667. So EPS would be (Earnings) / (5000 + 667)
However, in reality, wouldn’t it have been more accurate to calculate the EPS as (Earnings + 20 x 2000) / (5000 + 2000)?
As in, the company would get an extra “cash profit” by the employee/investor “buying” the stocks at $20 x 2000. In “payment”, the company would have to issue another 2000 common stocks.
This is not strictly a CFA exam question, given the method they want you to use (treasury stock method) is pretty clear, but I was just curious about the accuracy.
Thanks.