How is the income on zero coupon bonds taxed?

In Kaplan, it is stated that the difference between the price of bond and the face value at maturity, is treated as interest and taxed accordingly as ordinary income. eg. you buy a ZCB at 600, and redeem it for 1000 on maturity. Your income is 1000 - 600 = 400, which should be treated as interest income.

However, readings from the CBOK suggest it should be treated as Capital gains.

Which one’s corrrect?

Does anyone knows what is “Improper call of perception” is…??? whlie answering one of me CFAI Mock exams, an error ocurred and I got the above mentioned message. Afterwards, I couldn’t access my CFAI mock exams anymore, evertime I try I got the same message…

Thanks a lot for your help…

Buddy, you are posting on the wrong link. Create a new post. And I got no idea of this improper call of perception… seems strange!

Elaish:

Its related to an improper loading of your Flash player.

Reinstall or update that. http://get.adobe.com/flash player/

Siidhart:

I believe you only pay capital gains(losses) on bonds if you redeem them at a price above(below) its constant yield trajectory.

they are treated as taxable interest income every year even when no physical cash interest payment has been made.

Yes, in the US (at least), you’re taxed on the imputed interest (as if you’d received it).

so it is treated as interest income, thnx!

Cap gains are levied when sale price prior to maturity is more in comparison the purchase price. HOwever, I am talking about zero coupon bonds, where there is no interest payment and the difference between maturity sale value and discounted purchase price is received. In that case, I suppose, entire difference is taxed as interest income.