Answer to a question about picking a manager for a value objective using a styles analysis, stated the following reasoning:
- Low p/e
- High dividend yield
- Style fit of 87%
- All suggest that this manager is following an active value strategy.
First two make sense, but can someone explain the last number. Is there a set rule here since the text doesn’t refer to this in the equity section. Or at least it wasn’t that apparent after a second read.
Furthermore, would such a combination of analysis (fundamentals and fit) be a combination of HBSA and RBSA?