How to interpret the style fit?

Answer to a question about picking a manager for a value objective using a styles analysis, stated the following reasoning:

  1. Low p/e
  2. High dividend yield
  3. Style fit of 87%
  • All suggest that this manager is following an active value strategy.

First two make sense, but can someone explain the last number. Is there a set rule here since the text doesn’t refer to this in the equity section. Or at least it wasn’t that apparent after a second read.

Furthermore, would such a combination of analysis (fundamentals and fit) be a combination of HBSA and RBSA?

Use 93% as your threshold.

#BuzzedAgain

  1. Not sure, but isn’t that under point 3 the coefficient of determination (R2) what may be interpreted that 87 % of analysis is explained by manager’s style?
  2. IMO, this is a HBSA.

The first two are typically for hbsa or a mutlifactor factor model but not rbsa. Rbsa is regressing against small mid and LG cap, along with value and growth styles of each cap size