When a tax on a good or service is imposed on the producers of the good or service, the
The supply will decrease but the incidence of tax falls on both buyers and sellers
The demand will decrease but the incidence of tax will fall on both buyers and sellers
Can someone explain why is it first and not second?
Producer will produce less and hence answer 1, but they can also pass 100% of the tax to buyers and continuing the same quantity, and demand will decrease.
A decrease in the quantity demanded: a movement along the existing demand curve.
When a tax is imposed on producers, their costs increase, so there is a decrease in supply (the supply curve shifts to the left). However, there is no shift in the demand curve; the new equilibrium point is the intersection of the new (lower) supply curve and the old (unchanged) demand curve: higher price than before the tax, lower quantity than before the tax.
The cost does increase. The fact that it can be offset with a higher price doesn’t change that fact.
If they increase the price by the full amount of the tax, the quantity demanded will change (along the existing demand curve) to the quantity consistent with the higher price. There is no reason that the same quantity will be demanded at the higher price.
No. Saying that the demand decreases is saying that the demand curve shifts. The demand curve doesn’t shift; we simply move along the (existing) demand curve to a new point, where it intersects the new supply curve (which has shifted; hence, a change in supply).
Changes in demand are caused by, for example:
An increase in consumer (disposable) income
A change in price for a substitute good
A change in price for a complementary good
The demand curve does not shift (merely) because of a change in the price of the good in question.
No, Answer 2 can not be correct because sellers can not directly increase their prices because they are in competitive market. If they do so they will be out of game.