Hi all,
my question of the day
is:
Why do I use a two-tail test if my null hypothesis is:
H0 = two characteristics are independent
Ha = two characteristics are dependent = two characteristics are not independent
I understood everything until the point in the Schweser Notes as they us alpha/2 in the upper tail
and alpha/2 in the lower tail.
There are just these two possibilities (independent and not independent).
So why do I use the two tail test ?
Many thanks!
Cheers
Are you testing their correlation coefficient?
Well, I have the contingency table of the both categories and calculated the ChiSq-Test-Statistic X².
The LOS 6.m asks for independence based on contingency tables.
So I would like to compare my X² to a critical value. The significance level is 5% with 4 degrees of freedom.
The table states:
df = 4 and prob = .025 => 11.143
df = 4 and prob = .05 => 9.488
The solution mentioned in the Schweser notes used a CV of 11.143.
I am just wondering why to use this one and not the 9.488.
H0 = independent
Ha = dependent (or do I state it as Ha <> independent and therefore âtwo-sidedâ test)?
Is this in the 2022 curriculum?
(I havenât a copy of that yet, alas.)
Yes it is.
I just contacted Schweser as the example was nealry the same as in the CFA Curriculum.
They confirmed that it should be 9.488.
Sorry for the confusion.
Cheers