Any help simplifying/breaking down the below question would be appreciated. Just having a hard time wrapping my head around the reasoning Kaplan provides.
A LIBOR based floating rate bond combined with a LIBOR based collar (a short position in an interest rate cap and a long position in an interest rate floor both at the same strike rate) is equivalent to a;
A. Pay-fixed swap position
B. Fixed-rate bond
C. Call option on a bond
Explanation: The effective rate above the cap strike and below the floor strike, when combined with the floating rate on a bond, is constant.