I’m getting confused with the below professors note from Schweser
" For the exam you need to know that a long interest rate call combined with a short interest rate put can have the same payoff as a long position in an FRA"
I can’t put together how a risk reversal on an interest option equals an FRA. Thought the FRA was just rate at exp.less the forward rate.
A long interest rate call with a strike of X% has a payoff of:
0%, when the market rate is ≤ X%
Market rate – X%, when the market rate > X%
A short interest rate put with a strike of X% has a payoff of:
Market rate – X%, when the market rate ≤ X%
0%, when the market rate is > X%
A combination of a long call and a short put, therefore, has a payoff of:
0% + (market rate – X%) = market rate – X%, when the market rate is ≤ X%
(Market rate – X%) + 0% = market rate – X%, when the market rate is > X%
Thus, a combination of a long call and a short put has a payoff of:
market rate – X%
The long position on an FRA with a fixed rate of X% has a payoff (at the expiration of the FRA: the beginning of the loan period) of:
PV(market rate – X%)
So, a long position in an FRA has the same payoff as the present value (as of the expiration of the FRA) of the payoff on a long interest rate call + a short interest rate put, both expiring at the end of the FRA loan period, both with a strike equal to the fixed rate in the FRA.
So just to confirm, an FRA has the same payoff as a long Interest rate call and a short interest rate put with the same strike %.
An interest rate collar however, is the combination of an long interest rate call (cap) and a short interest rate put (floor) at different strikes…correct ?