Hi guys, please help…
I can’t understand the reason the below two seemingly similar questions using binomial trees are discounted at different points on the binomial tree. Both questions require that we find the price of 2 period instrument…
In the EXAMPLE 1 we need to discount back at rate T =2, in EXAMPLE 2 we need to discount back at T =1… why is it so when we are looking at 2 year values for both of these questions???
EXAMPLE 1 – find interest rate call value
A two-period interest rate tree has the following expected one-period rates:
t = 0 …… t = 1 ………. t = 2
………………………7.12%
………….6.83%
6.00% ………………….6.84%
…………. 6.17% ………………………… 6.22%
The price of a two-period European interest-rate call option on the one-period rate with a strike rate of 6.25% and a principal amount of $100,000 is closest to:
In the above question answer says we NEED TO DISCOUNT BACK BEGINNING AT THE T = 2 RATE
EXAMPLE 2 – find straight bond value…
Find the value of normal bond “not callable” using the below binomal tree.
t = 0 …… t = 1 ………. t = 2
……………………………9.324%
………….8.53%
7.250% …………………7.634%
………… 6.983% ……………………………6.250%
In the above question answer says we NEED TO DISCOUNT BACK BEGINNING AT THE T = 1 RATE
Why the difference between the two examples above? What am I doing wrong? Any thoughts? Would greatly appreciate any feedback…