The below is taken from one of the FI TTs:
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It makes sense to me that interest rate volatility declining decreases value of options and therefore decreases value of putable and increases value of callable (formulas that help me understand this: straight bond - call option = value of callable and straight bond + put option = value of putable).
HOWEVER, what is confusing me is the statement that i highlighted in bold above. I thought that when the slope moves from flat to upward sloping, the value of the callable bond decreases and value of putable decreases (higher interest rates bring bond prices down).
Could someone please explain this to me? I’m trying to understand how both concepts fit together.
Thank you !!!