Hi There, I have some problem with understanding the conclusion to thie example
[question removed by moderator]
Do not understand that part of preference of receiver swaption:
The purchased receiver swaption will be preferred only if the swap rate is expected to be somewhat above 4.25%, the strike rate on the written payer swaption
Receiver swaption is put on interest rates so it becomes ITM below 3.60%. Can some of yoy guys can help me here?