Is there a difference between loss aversion when looked at via BPT versus vs Prospect Theory? If you look at EOC Question #5 for Reading 5 (Behavioral Finance), it says the answer is that the client is behaving consistently with BPT and not consistently with Prospect Theory because Prospect Theory discusses loss aversion from a different perspective… Seems very odd to me, I cannot detect a difference and though that since Prospect Theory was part of BPT, it would be the same. Anyone have a clear answer on this difference? Many thanks!