The CFAI text states:
The risk premium for the inflation factor, however, is typically negative. Thus, an asset with a positive sensitivity to the inflation factor (an asset with returns that tend to be positive in response to unexpectedly high inflation) would have a lower required return than if its inflation sensitivity were negative; an asset with positive sensitivity to inflation would be in demand for its inflation-hedging ability.
Little confused here, though.
If: bi1 > 0 and FINFL is greater than expected (actual - expected) > 0
Then should the required return be higher?