Hi all,
Question 37 on in Exam 1, PM - we are required to convert cash to equity exposure via futures. The first part of the answer uses the current portfolio beta (1.15) as the target beta opposed to the stated target beta (1.25). Why are they using current portfolio beta instead of target beta?
From answer:
To increase her equity exposure, Ruiz is effectively converting GBP 50 million from cash to equity, so the number of equity contracts that Ruiz needs to execute is:
where:
Nsf = βT − βE × P βf fs
Nsf = number of equity index futures contracts βT = target beta (1.15 for the current portfolio) βE = existing beta (0.0 for cash) βf = futures beta (1.04)
P = market value of portfolio to be reallocated (GBP 50,000,000) fs = equity index futures price (GBP 240,000)
Nsf = βT − βE × P βf fs
= 1.15 − 0.0 × GBP 50,000,000 = 230.37 1.04 GBP 240,000
To increase the equity beta from 1.15 to 1.25 (on the new equity allocation of GBP 300,000,000 (= GBP 250,000,000 + GBP 50,000,000)), the number of equity contracts that Ruiz needs to execute is:
Nsf = βT − βE × P βf fs
= 1.25 − 1.15 × GBP 300,000,000 = 120.19 1.04 GBP 240,000
The total number of equity contracts that El Mohamady needs to execute is: 230.37 + 120.19 = 350.56
Therefore, Ruiz should buy (i.e. take the long position in) 351 equity futures contracts.
thanks