Can someone please tell me that - “by saying negative key rate duration, it actually means positive relationship between Bond Price and key rates”. I was going through the last reading of Fixed Income and got confused with this. thankyou guys !!!
I agree with your statements. Just confirm me one more thing - Can we say “Non callable bonds have +ve duration (all rates) and Interest Only strips has -ve duration (long term rates)” or should we say it other way round.
I think we are confusing ourselves. @Psahni, does the question relates to MBS? As this is a amortizing bond with prepayment option it will behave differently from a normal option free bond ? So how does the sentence fit in the context?
I think we are confusing ourselves. @Psahni, does the question relates to MBS? As this is a amortizing bond with prepayment option it will behave differently from a normal option free bond ? So how does the sentence fit in the context?
The normal situation for a bond is that the price falls when interest rates rise, and vice-versa; this corresponds to a positive duration (Macaulay, modified, effective, key rate, whatever). If a bond’s price rises when interest rates rise and falls when interest rates fall, that corresponds to a negative (effective, or key rate) duration. (Macaulay duration and modified duration cannot be negative.) The common example of this is an IO strip in a CMO when interest rates are low: such a bond has a negative effective duration.
So, a negative key rate duration means that when that key rate rises the bond’s price rises, and when that key rate falls the bond’s price falls: a positive relationship between the bond price and the key rate.
@S2000magician: You understood my query more than I could and you not only resolved it perfectly but also provided me added info that Macaulay and modified duration can’t be negative. Please find below a dedicated thanks for you.