When we are calculating the nominal return for a IPS question, we add the inflation component. However when we are assigning asset allocation to a pension fund, we assign nominal bonds to asset not linked to inflation…
I’m struggling to understand the logic…
Why do we does nominal = real + inflation, but we use nominal bonds when there is NO inflation indexation in a pension plan?
TIPS are real rate bonds and offer coup + inflation. In the liability mimicking instance a real rate bond implies that the inflation component is already incorporated into the returns. However when we do an IPS question the real rate is without inflation…
With liabilities.
You work out the endownment needs a 4% return to pay staff wages and costs. This is in 2023 terms.
As we move through time inflation will mean wages and other costs will increase by inflation.
I am planning my retirement. In today’s terms I know how much money I want a year but I have to think in 20 years the price of food will be higher.
So I now I need a 4% return but I need to add inflation to this in order to get the return I require to protect the purchasing power of my future income. Say inflation 2%
So I have real return objective of 4% and a nominal objective of 6% (or 6.08%)
Bonds
If a bond offers a “real return” of 4% it is above the underlying inflation rate. UK has inlation linked bonds that quote a real coupon rate.
Most bonds quote a nominal rate - the cash you will actually get - (rational) investors will have determined the rate of return they want on the bonds including a premium for inflation.