One of the problems in portfolio management is trying to explain why the PE ratio went from 16 to 18.4
The answer is 2 which I get why. However, why wouldn’t 3 be the answer as well? Because in theory when we decrease the earnings growth, the PE ratio goes up.
Which of the following changes in market conditions best supports Carlisle’s comment regarding the equilibrium P/E for Country #3?
A An increase in the equity risk premium
B A decrease in uncertainty about future inflation
C A decrease in expectation of future real earnings growth