If we define the real exchange rate as the ratio of price levels converted to a common currency, then PPP says that the expected change in the real exchange rate should be zero.
Can someone help understand this ?
If we define the real exchange rate as the ratio of price levels converted to a common currency, then PPP says that the expected change in the real exchange rate should be zero.
Can someone help understand this ?
PPP assumes that real interest rates (across currencies) are equal.
Sure would be interesting if that appeared on a mock exam.