With the following data (Question 1 in practice problem of Curriculum), i wonder why they dont include Accrued interest at futures contract expiration in pricing formulas
Exhibit 1. Current Data for Futures and Underlying Bond
Futures Contract:
Quoted futures price: 125.00
Conversion factor: 0.90
Time remaining to contract expiration: Three months
Accrued interest over life of futures contract: 0.00
Underlying Bond
Quoted bond price 112.00
Accrued interest since last coupon payment: 0.08
Accrued interest at futures contract expiration: 0.20
Detail answer from curriculum:
The no-arbitrage futures price is equal to the following:
Bond prices are always – _ always! _ – quoted as clean prices, whether they be spot prices or forward prices. Note the quote on the underlying bond: 112.00 is the clean price.
Because that’s not part of the price of the bond. Whe the forward expires you’ll have to pay the accrued interest, but that’s over and above the price of the bond.
In the answer, why in the adjusted price of the futures contract are we added accrued interest of 0.20 in three months to the adjusted price of the futures contract (per below?)
The adjusted price of the futures contract is equal to the conversion factor multiplied by the quoted futures price:
F0(T) = CF(T)QF0(T)
F0(T) = (0.90)(125) = 112.50
Adding the accrued interest of 0.20 in three months (futures contract expiration) to the adjusted price of the futures contract gives a total price of 112.70.