I am a little lost here on the second answer provided by dwheats. If someone buys into his/her account before recommending a buy, is that not a violation in itself even if he/she disclose this in his/her report?
Please expantiate further.
And S2000magician, i will also appreciate your clearity on this because you seems to agree with the above comment.
It would depend on when the buy recommendation was formulated: if she had already formulated the buy recommendation before purchasing the ABC stock, then it would be front running, which is a violation of the Standards. If she purchased the stock, then formulated the buy recommendation the next day, it would not be front running, but she still needs to disclose her ownership position.
I think it’s implied that she spent more than one day formulating the recommendation so it is front running. If she didn’t, she probably violated adequate basis.
I don’t see the implication, but if it’s there, then it’s a poor question: not the sort of thing you’ll encounter on the real exam. CFA Institute will tell you explicitly what you need to know.
I think this is a violation because the analyst must have acted on information. However, since it was not stated if there was a communication of information (material non-public), the question seems incomplete to me.