Theld = Value of Treasuries held Rf = Yield on Treasuries (ie risk free rate) Vf = Value of futures contract
My issue is with the " [Theld * (1+Rf)^t] " term. Earlier in the reading, it was mentioned that this portion of the formula is Vp - current value of the portfolio. However, here it seems to suggest that it is the future value of the portfolio (due to multiplication with (1+Rf)^t ).
Is there any explanation as to why it is this way?
First, do not assume that βt = βf; they will give you these numbers.
Second, you’re correct, you’re converting the future value of the portfolio. You do this _ only _ when you’re converting a cash position to equity, not when you’re converting a fixed-income position to equity. (You can argue that cash is fixed income - and I would agree with you - but of you treat it this way you’ll fail this topic. CFA Institute says that when you’re converting cash to equity, use the future value of the cash. [Cue Yul Brynner’s voice.] “So let it be said; so let it be done.”)
So, to conclude: the CFAI arbitrarily uses the future value of portfolio for converting cash to synthetic equity (and equity to synthetic cash) while using current value of portfolio for manipulating portfolio beta otherwise.