I know this is one of those things I should just memorize and move along but I’m curious why the joint probability of survival for a couple is being calculated as the difference between the sum of the individual probabilities of survial for each spouse less the product of the individual probabilities of survival for each spouse.
Shouldn’t it just be Phusband*Pwife; since it is a joint probability of mutually exclusive events? Is it perhaps just a more conservative approach to approximating joint survival?
I was never the best statstistics student, but this one has me puzzled.
if the husbard dies before the wife is 60, there is a 50% the wife remarries, forfeiting the pension right… loads of scope for twisting this one round, so memorise it.
This is exactly what i m saying. That this formula shows the probability of either husband or wife survice, this does not include probability for survival of both. Where as above its written both survice. Thanks anyways i just got confused with this statement so thought to clearify it