Reading 10 ( currency management) example 7- Cross Hedges
In this example, they want us to calculate the portfolio return and portfolio SD in domestic terms
The problem states the asset risk is 0 for both holdings, but what I don’t get is when we calculate the portfolio standard deviation, instead of using 0, they use another formula which is the return on the foreign currency asset * the currency risk to find the expected risk.
I am pretty confused about this as to why we are doing this when they explicitly told us that the asset risk is 0