Do we always assuming 1% coupon per year corresponding to the maturity of CDX? In this example, we long IG and short HY, both are 5-year maturity CDX, wouldn’t that be 5% for each so the net = 0% ?
Also, for protection buyer, the buyer pays premium in exchange for credit events. Does the buyer also receive the coupon or it’s the protection seller that receives the coupon?
For Q#2 - I’m really confused to what the solution says - it states it’s opposite strategy than Q#1 (ie. long HY, short IG), but the final paragraph states “$1,306,000 gain from the short CDX HY position”, so which one is it exactly ?
Thanks.