I am stuck with question seven in Reading 35, especially the calculation of the option premium gives me a hard time.
In the solution they calculate for the March 1.5 calls:
15,000,000/1,5 * 0,03=300,000 Dollar resulting in 300,000/1,5=200,000 pounds unsing the current spot rate.
I don’t understand the expression 15,000,000/1.5. Is the 1.5 the strike price? If yes, in the next calculation they should have used 1.55 and 1.6 strikes, but they haven’t.
Did anyone have the same question and already the answer?
“I don’t understand the expression 15,000,000/1.5. Is the 1.5 the strike price? If yes, in the next calculation they should have used 1.55 and 1.6 strikes, but they haven’t.”
Something is funny.
All of the calculation that they show, is only for $1.5/GBP call. They don’t show the calculations for the 1.55 and 1.6 calls.
Profit on call = $15M/1.7 - $15M/1.55.
Decline in your portfolio value = $15M/1.5 (in Nov) - $15M/1.7 (in March). Unlike the 1.5 case, the decline is MORE than the profit on call (which is why the 1.55 call was cheaper.) Think of your $15M as a variable asset in GBP terms, when GBP goes up your asset falls in value.
Your net loss = (option premium = 0.015 GBP * 15M/1.5(/GBP) when you bought it = 0.015 * 10M GBP) + Decline in your portfolio value - Profit on call =
150K + 1176K - 854K = 472K GBP. I am not sure how they got 9577K, I am getting 10M-472K = 9528K.
EDIT:
My bad, the call prices are in , not GBP. Which is strange because you are based in Britain. But anyway, the option premium is not 0.015 GBP but 0.015 or 0.010 GBP, which means a total premium of 100K GBP which means a total loss of 422K or a value of 9578K, close to the book’s value.
Dollars->Pounds->Call premium in dollars->call premium in pounds .
Each time you go from Dollars to Pounds , you divide by spot . You go from dollars to pounds twice , once for principal and one for premium . so two divisions by spot rate