Question 2 on page 69 asks us to value property #1 either using income approach, cost approach or the sales approach.
Answer c states that the terminal value at the end of year 5 in the income approach is $53,632,650, which is the correct answer but it is solved using Year 6 NOI / terminal value. My questions is why don’t we discount Year 5 with the terminal value to get the value of the property since answer C clearly states the terminal value at the end of year 5?