Reading 43 page 69 CFA EOC Terminal Value

Question 2 on page 69 asks us to value property #1 either using income approach, cost approach or the sales approach.

Answer c states that the terminal value at the end of year 5 in the income approach is $53,632,650, which is the correct answer but it is solved using Year 6 NOI / terminal value. My questions is why don’t we discount Year 5 with the terminal value to get the value of the property since answer C clearly states the terminal value at the end of year 5?

It’s the same principle as dividends growth model for stocks. You don’t use recently paid dividends to calculate stock value, you use the “next” year’s expected dividends, which has grown by g%.

Same here, to calculate terminal value at year 5, you use the “next” year’s NOI, i.e. year 6 NOI.

And i think you might be confusing “terminal value” with “cap rate”

That makes perfect sense! Yes I meant to say cap rate.

You’re the man Kevin !