Can someone please explain the difference in using effective duration here, instead of ModDur? They have the exact same formula, except that EffectiveDur uses a benchmark in the denominator instead of the change in YTM, correct? Also, I thought Effective duration was used with embedded options, ie. callable bond… If the question stated find ModDur instead of Effective duration, would the answer also have been B? Just trying to wrap my head around the difference here, as this seems to be the most difficult chapter I’ve run across… A noncallable bond with seven years remaining to maturity is trading at 108.1% of a par value of $1,000 and has an 8.5% coupon. If interest rates rise 50 basis points, the bond’s price will fall to 105.3% and if rates fall 50 basis points, the bond’s price will rise to 111.0%. Which of the following is closest to the effective duration of the bond? A) 6.12. B) 5.27. C) 5.54.
The formula for effective duration is: (V- - V+) / (2V0Δcurve). Therefore, effective duration is: ($1.110 - $1.053) / (2 × $1.081 × 0.005) = 5.27.