The reasons as given in the study text (Wiley) for widening bid-ask spreads in forward contracts, as the term of the contract lengthens (becomes longer):
-
The longer the contract term, the less liquidity
-
The longer the contract term, the more credit risk
-
The longer the contract term, the more interest rate risk.
My question is: why is the “inflation risk” not given in the list of reasons? Is it not a reason?
As the term of the contract becomes longer, isn’t it correct to say that the risk of inflation being different from forecasted/expected also a reason for the widening bid-ask spread as the term of the forward contract becomes longer?