Hi, I’m studying off 2022 Schweser books though should be the same. In SS4 10.1 (Currrency Management - An Introduction) LOS 10.b, it says a reason AGAINST active currency management is having a long time horizon - because “in the long run, currencies revert to a theoretical fair value”, however in the quiz answer it lists “long time horizon” as a reason FOR active currency management??
From lesson:
"Arguments made for NOT hedging currency risk includes the following:
- In the long run, currencies revert to a theoretical fair value
Arguments FOR active currency management include:
- In the short run, currency movements can be extreme"
So long time horizon = no need for active, short horizon = reason for hedging correct?
However the answer key says (10.1 Q5):
"Any of the following will shift the portfolio towards active currency management allowing greater manager discretion:
- A long time horizon for portfolio objectives"
Isn’t this literally contradicting the above??