I am having a conundrum regarding the relationship between bond prices and yields. I am not sure if my mind has got in a twist or if it because of my lack of direct experience investing in fixed income securities.
So here goes, so in the current market environment investors are complaining about low yields on bonds due to the low rates, however if for example a US, or UK 10 year bond was bought 5 years ago it must have seen significant price appreciation due to falling rates. So an investor could sell this bond in the secondary market after 5 years to realize his gain? Parallel question do falling ie. low interest rates therefore not become irrelevant because I would always be compensated through rising bond prices?
Also on Bloomberg, they publish just one yield number for the US 10 year bond. Also, I do not know how to interpret this yield as surely it depends on when the bond was bought? I would appreciate if anyone with a little more fixed income experience can answer these questions. Thanks in advance!