I know this must be a basic question, but why is P/E not 1/ROE, is this because ROE is earning per share/book value per share but P/E is market price/earning per share?
ROE has nothing to do with share price.
Look at your formula.
Return on equity (ROE) = net income / total equity
but if we divide total share number above and below shouldnt we get earning and price per share?
Still, where does price per share enter into it?
total equity/total share?
Which is book value per share, not price per share, no?
and THAT, is why I was an idiot about ALAS