In Schweser’s book, the present value of expected loss=expected loss+risk premium-time value. Could someone help to just roughly explain this relationship please, like why to plus risk premium and to minus time value… Unable to understand the rationale behind it.
PV of expected loss makes few adjustments:
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Risk premium —> reflects a higher risk vis-a-vis a risk-free bond. (+) sign because the riskier the bond the higher the loss
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Time value —> loss in the future is less of a concern than a loss now, cause at the very least the investor would have collected some coupons before the default. Hence the (-) sign would reduce the loss.
Thanks a lot for this explanation. Really helped me.