Required return for DBs

Should we always assume that the actuary’s determination of required return incorporates inflation? E.g. simple example: A DB plan’s liabilities are 200 MUSD and the required return is 5%. Inflation is 3%.

What is the pension plan’s nominal required return? So the answer to this simple question should simply be 5%?

Is it ALM approach? If so, is there liability discount rate?

It also depends on if the plan is underfunded, fully funded, or overfunded.

If the plan is fully funded the required return should just equal the discount rate.

  • If Assets = PBO the required return is the discount rate.
  • If Assets < PBO the required return > discount rate.
  • If Assets > PBO the required return < discount rate.

Just opened my notes on this one and found these entries:

Return Objective

  • Use actuarial rate.
  • If low liquidity and young workforce, follow capital gains focus, otherwise use income focus (duration matching).
  • If underfunded seek contributions not aggressive returns.
  • Not multiply discount rate by inflation??

For nominal return why is inflation ignored? Isn’t it counterintuitive?

The discount rate already includes inflation (unless they explicitly say it’s a real rate) - look back at the 2012 paper, Q4 or Q5 I think. (I had to learn the hard way…)