Hi all,
Something bothering me about question 28 from the cfa website mock exam (afternoon section) on residual income model
For coming up with a value for stock at time t they are valuing the stock as perpetuity using the long term growth when there are much higher growth rates between now and when the long term growth rate kicks in.
Should we not make this a multi step model to account for the changes in the growth rate, I don’t believe this is fundamentally correct but could be way off.
Any help is greatly appreciated.