So I know if we are given the data to calculate residual income for the next 5 years, and we know that residual income falls to 0 abruptly after yr 5, then we simply find the PV of all the RI cash flows and add those to BBV- easy enough.
But when given a persistence factor of say .5 starting in year 5, I know we would do RI5/1+RFR-pers factor to get the terminal value to stick on the timeline. Here is my question:
- if the persistence factor is ‘reached at the end of year 5’, does that mean the RI for year 5 can be used to get a TV at t=4. Or does it need to say ‘if the persistence factor is reached starting in year 6’ to do that?