1.) To convert a historical dollar figure to today’s dollars, why isn’t the coversion process:
–> earnings x (1+inflation rate)^n
– Instead it is Earnings x [CPI(now) / CPI(prior)]. Doesn’t the ladder, which is how the book teaches, ignore compounding?
2.) The result gives you “the value in today’s dollars”. Does this mean that the value is in today’s real terms or nominal terms? I’d think nominal because you are including the impact of inflation, no? Or is that once adjusted for inflation, today’s dollars now indeed represent today’s value in real terms?
When you generally hear people drawing comparison’s between someone’s wealth 100 years ago and someone today, is this how they convert the numbers to make an apples-to-apples comparison ?
CPINow/CPIThen -> is the way that the variation in inflation is accounted for. The basket of items you bought in 1990 had a CPI of say 150. Now the same basket costs say 225. So it is 1.5 times as expensive - and that is strictly the inflation portion.
Different periods have a different CPI # associated with them.
Your assumption is that the inflation rate is a constant when you do earnings x (1+inflation rate)^n - which may not be the case.
Thanks, Green. I had that inclination but didn’t run out the math. Makes sense.
CPK, I have to think it is the nominal dollar amount, but they tend to refer to the amount in today’s terms as being in “today’s real terms” - so it makes me wonder.