I seemed to have answered this correctly 100 times now i am confused again.
If a USD investor holds a portfolio or German Assets, whats his R(DC) return if:
Foreign Asset Return = 3.6%
USD/EUR beg = 1.10
USD/EUR end = 1.14
I have the RFX as -3.63%, but the example says it’s +3.63%
my logic - US Investor is holding EUR Assets. initially 1 USD could be exchanged for 1.10 EUR’s, now 1 USD can be exchanged for 1.14 EUR’s. So USD appreciate, EUR depreciated. If I’m holding EUR assets and EUR depreciated, how is my FX return positive?